UPSC Prelims 2026 Polity Quiz (Week 160): MCQs on Deputy Chairman of the Council of States, Article 3 of Indian Constitution and more

3. cannot be removed from his office

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 1 and 3 only

Relevance: The question tests clarity on parliamentary offices and their constitutional provisions. It is important for distinguishing resignation and removal procedures under Article 90 of the Indian Constitution. It is also relevant for understanding of internal functioning of Parliament.

Explanation

—A member holding office as Deputy Chairman of the Council of States —

(a) shall vacate his office if he ceases to be a member of the Council; Hence, statement 1 is correct.

(b) may at any time, by writing under his hand addressed to the Chairman, resign his office; and Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

(c) may be removed from his office by a resolution of the Council passed by a majority of all the then members of the Council. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

(Source: Constitution of India)

QUESTION 2

Which of the following provisions are not covered under Article 3 of Indian Constitution?

1. Increasing the area of the State

2. Altering the name of any State

3. Abolishing a State completely

4. Altering representation of States in Rajya Sabha

5. Forming a new State by uniting two or more States or parts of States

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 2 and 3 only

(b) 3 and 5 only

(c) 1, 2, and 5 only

(d) 3 and 4 only

Relevance: The question tests conceptual clarity on territorial reorganisation powers of Parliament under Article 3 of the Indian Constitution. It is also relevant for distinguishing between map-based changes and structural constitutional changes, which UPSC can ask in prelims.

Explanation

—Article 3 of the Indian Constitution empowers Parliament to form new states and alter existing states by a simple majority and without the need for the concurrence of the state concerned.

—Under Article 3 of the Constitution of India, Parliament may by law —

(a) form a new State by separation of territory from any State or by uniting two or more States or parts of States or by uniting any territory to a part of any State;

(b) increase the area of any State;

(c) diminish the area of any State;

(d) alter the boundaries of any State;

(e) alter the name of any State.

—Abolishing a State completely and Altering representation of States in Rajya Sabha are not the provisions under Article 3.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

(Other Source: Constitution of India)

QUESTION 3

Who causes to be laid before the Parliament the statement of supplementary, additional or excess grants when the amount authorized for a service is found to be insufficient during a financial year?

(a) President

(b) Speaker of the Lok Sabha

(c) Supreme Court

(d) Comptroller and Auditor General

Relevance: The question is important for distinguishing between roles of the executive and legislature in fiscal governance. The topic strengthens clarity on parliamentary control over finances.

Explanation

—The President shall cause to be laid before both the Houses of Parliament another statement showing the estimated amount of that expenditure or cause to be presented to the House of the People a demand for such excess, as the case may be.

(i) If the amount authorised by any law made in accordance with the provisions of article 114 to be expended for a particular service for the current financial year is found to be insufficient for the purposes of that year or when a need has arisen during the current financial year for supplementary or additional expenditure upon some new service not contemplated in the annual financial statement for that year; or

(ii) If any money has been spent on any service during a financial year in excess of the amount granted for that service and for that year.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

(Source: Constitution of India)

QUESTION 4

The Chairman or any other member of a Public Service Commission shall be removed from his office by:

1. Order of the Chief Justice of India after an inquiry

2. Resolution passed by the Parliament by special majority

3. Order of the President on the ground of misbehaviour after the Supreme Court

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

Relevance: The question tests core understanding of constitutional bodies like the Public Service Commissions. It is important for distinguishing between removal procedures of different authorities (President, Parliament, Judiciary), a frequent UPSC trap area. It would also help in elimination-based questions.

Explanation

—As per the Article 317 of the Constitution of India, the Chairman or any other member of a Public Service Commission shall only be removed from his office by order of the President on the ground of misbehaviour after the Supreme Court, on reference being made to it by the President, has, on inquiry held in accordance with the procedure prescribed in that behalf under article 145.

—The chairman of the Public Service Commission shall not be removed by the order of the Chief Justice of India after an inquiry and resolution passed by the Parliament by special majority.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

(Source: Constitution of India)

QUESTION 5

With reference to the Panchayats, consider the following statements:

1. A person can be disqualified from Panchayat elections if he is less than twenty-five years of age and more than 21 years of age.

2. A Panchayat constituted upon the dissolution of a Panchayat before the expiration of its duration shall continue for a new five year term.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Relevance: The question tests conceptual clarity on constitutional provisions related to Panchayats. It is important for avoiding confusion between state-specific laws and constitutional mandates. The topic strengthens understanding of grassroots governance framework, which is frequently asked in Polity-based prelims questions.

Explanation

—Every Panchayat, unless sooner dissolved under any law for the time being in force, shall continue for five years from the date appointed for its first meeting and no longer.

—A Panchayat constituted upon the dissolution of a Panchayat before the expiration of its duration shall continue only for the remainder of the period for which the dissolved Panchayat would have continued. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

—A person shall be disqualified for being chosen as, and for being, a member of a Panchayat —

(a) If he is so disqualified by or under any law for the time being in force for the purposes of elections to the Legislature of the State concerned: Provided that no person shall be disqualified on the ground that he is less than twenty-five years of age, if he has attained the age of twenty one years; Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

(b) If he is so disqualified by or under any law made by the Legislature of the State.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

(Other Source: Constitution of India)

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Previous Daily Subject-Wise-Quiz

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