UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz (May 31 – June 06) : 10 key questions with detailed answers for Prelims 2027

2. The e-Jagriti portal allows consumers to lodge complaints regarding insurance, banking, housing, electricity, finance, medical care, automobiles etc.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2027?

UPSC increasingly focuses on Digital India and e-Governance initiatives, especially platforms that improve service delivery and citizen welfare. Questions linking technology with governance, agriculture, and citizen-centric service delivery are a recurring UPSC theme.

Explanation

— The Union government named 16 projects of the Central, state and local governments across the country as the winners of the National Awards for e-Governance. These include the Agriculture Ministry’s platform for farmers, known as Agri Stack; the Consumer Affairs Ministry’s e-Jagriti platform for filing complaints; and the Prayagraj Mela Authority’s conduct of the Mahakumbh 2025.

—“National Awards for e-Governance are presented every year to recognise and promote excellence in implementation of e-Governance initiatives. The 29th NAeG 2026 awardees in seven categories include the gram panchayats category, recognising deepening and widening of service delivery at grassroots level through digitisation,” the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions said in a statement.

—The Agriculture Ministry’s Agri Stack provides data to farmers with regard to finance as well as early warning systems for disasters. The e-Jagriti portal allows consumers to lodge complaints regarding insurance, banking, housing, electricity, finance, medical care, automobiles etc. The 2025 Mahakumbh in Prayagraj had seen deployment of e-governance initiatives, apart from physical infrastructure. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 2

With reference to the balls used at the FIFA World Cup, consider the following statements:

1. The Telstar ball was created for the 1970 FIFA World Cup, which was made of 32 panels.

2. The Trionda ball will be used for the 2026 FIFA World Cup, which is notable for modern sensor and its lowest number of panels.

3. The Jabulani ball was used in the 2010 FIFA World Cup, which was notorious for its wild trajectories.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct ?

(a) There are two correct statements, that include statement 2.

(b) There are two correct statements, that are statements 1 and 3.

(c) There is only one correct statement.

(d) All three statements are correct.

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2027?

UPSC can frame questions on major international sporting events, innovations, and technological applications that receive global attention. The evolution of World Cup footballs—from Telstar to Jabulani to TRIONDA—provides a factual, chronology-based theme suitable for Prelims objective questions.

Explanation

—Every four years when the FIFA World Cup comes around, official sponsor Adidas creates a new iteration of the ball that will be used. This time, as the world further integrates artificial intelligence (AI) models into everyday use-case scenarios, the humble football now finds itself an AI-enabled entity, loaded with a sensor specifically built to track its movements.

—But the Trionda, this edition’s ball, is notable for more than its modern sensor. It has the lowest number of panels ever used to make a football. And, unlike the mercurial Jabulani ball used during the 2010 World Cup, it promises far fewer surprises than what many players had to contend with in South Africa. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

—The Telstar ball was created for the 1970 FIFA World Cup. Made of 32 panels, it was coloured black and white so that it would be more clearly visible to television audiences in a pre-colour TV era. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

—The Jabulani, used in 2010, was notorious for its wild trajectories. Made of eight thermally bonded panels, the ball was the smoothest ever created by Adidas. The drag from that smoothness was what led to its unpredictability and unpopularity among footballers. But the Trionda is different and has a failsafe in place. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 3

Consider the following statements about Nilgiri Tahr:

1. It is an endangered species found exclusively in the Southern Western Ghats.

2. The Nilgiri Tahr inhabits the verdant sub-alpine grasslands, and it plays a vital role in nutrient cycling in the high-altitude mountain ecosystem.

3. It has been accorded the highest protection status under the Wildlife Protection Act.

4. The Anamalai Hills hold approximately half of the total population of Nilgiri Tahr.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

(a) There are four correct statements.

(b) There are three correct statements, that include statements 2 and 3.

(c) There are two correct statements, that include statement 1.

(d) There is no correct statement.

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

The Nilgiri Tahr has been in the news due to conservation initiatives such as Project Nilgiri Tahr and population surveys. The Western Ghats is a biodiversity hotspot, making species-specific questions from this region highly relevant for Prelims.

Explanation

—Tamil Nadu’s Nilgiri Tahr population has recorded a steady rise with the third synchronised population estimation conducted in April 2026, putting the count at an estimated 1,364 individuals, showing a 4.68 per cent increase over last year. The ungulates, or hoofed animals are an endangered species found exclusively in the Southern Western Ghats. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

—The Nilgiri Tahr inhabits the verdant sub-alpine grasslands of the Western Ghats in Tamil Nadu and Kerala, and it plays a vital role in nutrient cycling in the high-altitude mountain ecosystem. It has been accorded the highest protection status under the Wildlife Protection Act. Hence, statements 2 and 3 are correct.

(Photo: Wikipedia)

—“The Anamalai Hills holds 44.87 percent of the total population of Nilgiri Tahr in Tamil Nadu, whereas the Nilgiris landscape holds 29.25 per cent of the population,” a press release issued by Supriya Sahu, Additional Chief Secretary to Environment, Climate Change and Forest Department stated. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

—The estimation exercise was carried out by the Tamil Nadu Forest Department under Project Nilgiri Tahr, from April 24-27, 2026, and it covered 14 forest divisions.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 4

With reference to the term ‘EBITDA’, consider the following statements:

1. It refers to earnings after interest, taxes, depreciation and amortisation deductions.

2. It is a measure of a company’s operating profitability.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2027?

Terms such as EBITDA frequently appear in discussions on corporate performance, disinvestment, IPOs, banking, and financial markets. Understanding EBITDA helps in interpreting company financial statements and assessing operational efficiency, an important aspect of the Indian Economy syllabus.

Explanation

—EBITDA, which refers to earnings before interest, taxes, depreciation and amortisation, is a measure of a company’s operating profitability.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 5

Consider the following statements:

1. He was a freedom fighter and, along with some associates, set up India’s first ‘government in exile’ in Kabul in 1915.

2. From Japan to England to US to Germany to Russia to Afghanistan, he travelled to several countries, creating awareness for and building alliances to usher in India’s independence.

3. He died in 1927 in the United States.

The above-mentioned statements refer to:

(a) Maulana Barkatullah

(b) Raja Mahendra Pratap

(c) Maulana Ubaidullah Sindhi

(d) Lala Har Dayal

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2027?

Lesser-known revolutionaries of the Indian freedom struggle, especially those associated with overseas movements and the Ghadar-era networks, are a recurring UPSC theme. The Provisional Government of India (Kabul, 1915) is an important milestone in the revolutionary movement abroad.

Explanation

—The executive council of Bhopal’s Barkatullah University has passed a proposal to change its name to Vagdevi Bhojpal University. The university got its current name in 1988, before which it was called Bhopal University.

—Maulana Barkatullah Bhopali was a freedom fighter and, along with some associates, most notably Raja Mahendra Pratap, set up India’s first ‘government in exile’ in Kabul in 1915.

—“Maulana Barkatullah devoted his life to working for India’s freedom abroad. From Japan to England to US to Germany to Russia to Afghanistan, he travelled to several countries, creating awareness for and building alliances to usher in India’s independence. He died in 1927 in the US, which is probably why his activities weren’t widely known back home. The recognition given to him in 1988, by naming a university after him in his hometown, had been a long-due honour,” said Chaman Lal, Honorary Advisor, Bhagat Singh Archives and Resource Centre, New Delhi, and retired JNU professor.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 6

With reference to the Deputy Governor of the Reserve Bank of India, consider the following statements:

1. The Deputy Governor of the RBI is appointed by the President.

2. The term of the appointment period is 4 years.

3. A person cannot be re-appointed as the Deputy Governor of the RBI.

4. At present, there are eight Deputy Governors to the Governor of the RBI.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only two

(b) Only three

(c) All four

(d) None of the above

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2027?

The appointment, tenure, and composition of the leadership of the Reserve Bank of India are governed by statutory provisions, making them important for Polity–Economy interface questions in UPSC Prelims. UPSC can test knowledge of constitutional and statutory authorities, including their appointment processes, tenure, powers, and organisational structure.

Explanation

—The Centre has re-appointed Swaminathan Janakiraman as Deputy Governor of the Reserve Bank of India. His term will begin from June 26. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

—Under Section 8 of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, the Deputy Governors are appointed by the Central Government. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

—Under Section 8 of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, a Deputy Governor holds office for such term not exceeding five years as the Central Government may fix at the time of appointment. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

—The RBI has four deputies to Governor Sanjay Malhotra: Swaminathan, Poonam Gupta, Shirish Chandra Murmu, and Rohit Jain. Hence, statement 4 is not correct.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 7

Recently, India witnessed the presence of natural gas in Sri Vijayapuram-3 well. It is located in:

(a) 10 kilometres off the eastern coast of Tamil Nadu

(b) 10 kilometres off the western coast of Kerala

(c) 15 kilometres off the eastern coast of Andhra Pradesh

(d) 15 kilometres off the eastern coast of the Andaman Islands

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2027?

UPSC can ask location-based questions on newly discovered mineral, petroleum, and natural gas reserves, especially those linked to government initiatives and strategic regions.

Explanation

— State-owned Oil India Ltd (OIL) has reported its second natural gas discovery in the Andaman offshore region, strengthening expectations that the basin could develop into a key hydrocarbon-producing zone in the years ahead. The latest find was made at the Vijayapuram-3 exploratory well, situated around 15 kilometres off the eastern coast of the Andaman Islands at a depth of 355 metres, Union Petroleum and Natural Gas Minister Hardeep Singh Puri announced.

—The discovery follows OIL’s earlier gas strike at the Vijayapuram-2 well in September 2025, making it the second gas-bearing well identified in the block. OIL said that two of the three exploratory wells drilled so far under its ongoing Andaman exploration programme have confirmed the presence of hydrocarbons, significantly improving the basin’s exploration prospects.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 8

With reference to the E85 fuels, consider the following statements:

1. The E85 fuel mixes 15% ethanol blended with 85% petrol.

2. Regular petrol vehicles can use E85 fuel.

3. E85 fuel can be compatible with regular E20 vehicles.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct ?

(a) All three statements are correct.

(b) There are two correct statements, that include statement 1.

(c) There is only one correct statement.

(d) There is no correct statement.

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2027?

India is promoting ethanol blending under the Ethanol Blended Petrol (EBP) Programme to reduce crude oil imports and lower emissions. The distinction between E20, E85, and flex-fuel vehicles has gained importance due to recent policy measures encouraging higher ethanol use.

Explanation

—The Union Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas launched the E85 fuel on World Environment Day. The primary difference between the two is the fuels’ composition and vehicle compatibility. While the standard E20 petrol contains up to 20% ethanol mixed with 80% conventional petrol, the new E85 shifts the balance and mixes 80%-85% ethanol blended with 14% to 19% petrol. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

—Regular petrol vehicles cannot use E85 as it is engineered exclusively for specialized flex-fuel vehicles, or FFVs. To push consumer adoption, the government has launched E85 at nearly Rs 20 per litre cheaper than normal petrol. In Delhi, the E85 fuel is priced at Rs 82.12 per litre. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

—E85 fuel is exclusively for flex-fuel vehicles, not for regular E20 compatible vehicles. In Brazil, E85 fuel has been in use for decades. Flex-fuel vehicle engines can run on various ethanol-petrol blends ranging from E20 to E100. This will boost farmers’ income, reduce dependence on crude oil imports, and strengthen the country’s energy security. It reflects India’s ongoing strides toward a clean and self-reliant future. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

—E20 and E85 are fuels from two different categories, designed for different types of vehicles. The arrival of E85 by no means implies that E20 or petrol vehicles will be discontinued.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 9

With reference to the groundnut cultivation in India, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. India accounts for nearly half of global groundnut exports.

2. Spring groundnut requires more water than spring maize.

3. The groundnut cultivation fixes atmospheric nitrogen through root nodules.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 3 only

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2027?

Groundnut is one of India’s major oilseed crops and is relevant to issues of edible oil self-sufficiency, agricultural productivity, and crop diversification. Recent policy focus on oilseeds under schemes such as the National Mission on Edible Oils–Oilseeds (NMEO-Oilseeds) increases the importance of understanding crops like groundnut.

Explanation

—Punjab is battling one of the country’s worst groundwater crises, first from paddy cultivation and now the rapid expansion of spring/summer maize. Spring/summer maize, a highly irrigated crop, is grown between the rabi (early winter) and kharif (monsoon) seasons during the hottest months of the year, before paddy transplantation. It is different from kharif maize, a diversification alternative to paddy which is cultivated during the monsoon, when there is ample water.

—Depending on soil type and sowing time, spring maize requires 12-19 rounds of irrigation and, in many instances, as many as 18-22 rounds during a crop duration of barely 90-100 days. At a time when groundwater levels continue to decline across large parts of Punjab due to its paddy cultivation, agricultural experts argue that the state cannot afford another water-guzzling crop. Spring groundnut requires only a fraction of the water consumed by spring maize. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

—Cultivating spring maize generally requires between Rs 18,500 and Rs 22,500 per acre. Spring groundnut, by comparison, costs only Rs 8,000-10,000 per acre, largely because of lower irrigation requirements and reduced input costs with mechanisation.

—Groundnut residue is highly valued as fodder for horses and goats and can fetch Rs 1,200-1,300 per quintal, generating an additional income of Rs 5,000-6,000 per acre.

—Being a leguminous crop, groundnut fixes atmospheric nitrogen through root nodules. The crop can fix between 25 and 60 kg of nitrogen per hectare. This allows farmers to save approximately one to one-and-a-half bags of urea in the following crop. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

—India accounts for nearly 18% of global groundnut exports and earns approximately Rs 7,000 crore annually in foreign exchange through exports of groundnut and value-added products. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 10

Consider the following statements:

1. Under the Fully Accessible Route (FAR), the RBI has expanded the universe of specified G-secs by including 15, 30 and 40-year tenor bonds.

2. Under FAR, FIIs (foreign institutional investors) can buy and sell designated Government of India securities with a quantitative limit on investment amount.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2027?

The Fully Accessible Route (FAR) is a key component of India’s capital account and government securities market reforms aimed at attracting foreign investment into sovereign debt. UPSC can ask about RBI initiatives, financial market mechanisms, foreign investment regulations, and recent economic reforms affecting India’s financial sector.

Explanation

—To encourage foreign capital inflows, the Reserve Bank of India on Friday eased norms for state-owned enterprises to borrow overseas and for banks to mobilise foreign current deposits. The move complements the government’s decision to do away with capital gains tax and withholding tax on FII investment in government bonds.

—The RBI will provide a concessional foreign exchange swap facility until September 30, 2026 to encourage external commercial borrowings (ECBs) by public sector firms. At the core, the RBI is effectively lowering the hedging and funding cost of borrowing in foreign currency by PSUs, enabling them to raise cheaper funds abroad. This move has come at a time when investment in new projects has become sluggish and growth has declined.

—RBI Governor Sanjay Malhotra said the central bank has relaxed norms for FII investments in government securities (G-secs) and increased limits for investments by NRIs and overseas citizens of India (OCIs) in equity instruments.

—Under the Fully Accessible Route (FAR), the RBI has expanded the universe of specified g-secs by including all new issuances of 15-, 30- and 40-year tenor bonds. It has also removed restrictions relating to short-term investments, concentration limits and individual securities for FII investments under the General Route. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

—Under FAR, FIIs can buy and sell designated Government of India securities freely without any quantitative limit or ceiling on investment amount. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Previous Weekly Quiz

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz (May 24 – May 30)

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz (May 17 – May 23)

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz (May 10 – May 16)

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz (May 03 – May 09)

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz (April 26 – May 02)

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz (April 19 – April 25)

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